according to Stan Liebowitz, reporting in the WSJ today (Friday, July 3, 2009 not sure if publicly available) on a regression analysis he conducted of home mortgage foreclosures. I wonder what co-blogger Todd makes of this; I'm not expert enough in the numbers surrounding home mortgages to say. However, as the article says, there certainly are policy implications, one way or the other. Here's a little bit:
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What is really behind the mushrooming rate of mortgage foreclosures since 2007? The evidence from a huge national database containing millions of individual loans strongly suggests that the single most important factor is whether the homeowner has negative equity in a house — that is, the balance of the mortgage is greater than the value of the house. This means that most government policies being discussed to remedy woes in the housing market are misdirected.
Many policy makers and ordinary people blame the rise of foreclosures squarely on subprime mortgage lenders who presumably misled borrowers into taking out complex loans at low initial interest rates. Those hapless individuals were then supposedly unable to make the higher monthly payments when their mortgage rates reset upwards.
But the focus on subprimes ignores the widely available industry facts (reported by the Mortgage Bankers Association) that 51% of all foreclosed homes had prime loans, not subprime, and that the foreclosure rate for prime loans grew by 488% compared to a growth rate of 200% for subprime foreclosures. (These percentages are based on the period since the steep ascent in foreclosures began — the third quarter of 2006 — during which more than 4.3 million homes went into foreclosure.)
Sharing the blame in the popular imagination are other loans where lenders were largely at fault — such as "liar loans," where lenders never attempted to validate a borrower's income or assets.
This common narrative also appears to be wrong, a conclusion that is based on my analysis of loan-level data from McDash Analytics, a component of Lender Processing Services Inc. It is the largest loan-level data source available, covering more than 30 million mortgages.
There's a very interesting graphic that goes with the story, titled "No Skin in the Game" summarizing the data.
The analysis indicates that, by far, the most important factor related to foreclosures is the extent to which the homeowner now has or ever had positive equity in a home. The accompanying figure shows how important negative equity or a low Loan-To-Value ratio is in explaining foreclosures (homes in foreclosure during December of 2008 generally entered foreclosure in the second half of 2008). A simple statistic can help make the point: although only 12% of homes had negative equity, they comprised 47% of all foreclosures.
Further, because it is difficult to account for second mortgages in this data, my measurement of negative equity and its impact on foreclosures is probably too low, making my estimates conservative.
What about upward resets in mortgage interest rates? I found that interest rate resets did not measurably increase foreclosures until the reset was greater than four percentage points. Only 8% of foreclosures had an interest rate increase of that much. Thus the overall impact of upward interest rate resets is much smaller than the impact from equity.
To be sure, many other variables — such as FICO scores (a measure of creditworthiness), income levels, unemployment rates and whether the house was purchased for speculation — are related to foreclosures. But liar loans and loans with initial teaser rates had virtually no impact on foreclosures, in spite of the dubious nature of these financial instruments.
Instead, the important factor is whether or not the homeowner currently has or ever had an important financial stake in the house. Yet merely because an individual has a home with negative equity does not imply that he or she cannot make mortgage payments so much as it implies that the borrower is more willing to walk away from the loan.
Update, and thanks to Mark Field in the comments, here is Barry Ritholz responding:
As to prime versus sub-prime, it appears the Mortgage Bankers Association, data dispute the professor’s. Jay Brinkmann, chief economist for the MBA, noted in May 2009 that in 2008, prime, fixed-rate loans were only 19% of foreclosure starts nationwide, while Subprime adjustable-rate mortgages were 39%. More recently, the two levels have come together: prime loans are up to 29% of foreclosure starts while subprime adjustables came down to 27%.
But reporting only in percentages can be misleading. As Floyd Norris noted in August of 2008, “There are far more prime mortgages than subprime, of course, and subprime loans are much more likely to get into trouble. But this does show how the foreclosure problem is spreading.”
Agreed.
But the claim that during this crisis it has been Prime and not Subprime is simply unsubstantiated by the timeline or data. Subprime went bad first, then Alt-A, and then prime followed it later. Sub-prime and Alt-A went bad due to poor lending standards; Prime went bad in part due to job losses and as the economy got worse.
If anything, there is a stronger argument to make that the problem is worse from 30 year fixed versus ARMs. Here is the MBA data from September 2008:
For prime loans, foreclosure starts on fixed rate loans were 0.34 percent, an increase of five basis points, while prime ARM foreclosure starts were 1.82 percent, a 26 basis point increase. For subprime loans, fixed rate foreclosure starts increased 27 basis points to 2.07 percent and subprime ARM foreclosure starts increased 31 basis points to 6.63 percent
Sub-prime worse than Prime, ARMs much worse than fixed.
Of course, it is true that 100% LTV mortgages are a problem. But you need some context to understand how they came about. And while the professor does correctly identify underwater mortgages as a major factor — he seems to place the blame squarely on 100% LTV. Perhaps another question worth exploring is the boom/bust issue: How did those home prices run up so much, only to reverse back towards normal, historical pricing metrics? For that, you need to look at many factors.
A more comprehensive 40,000 foot view would note that 100% LTV is a symptom of the larger problem of a) abdication of lending standards, caused by b) enormous demand for securitized loans, enabled by c) rating junk as AAA, in order to satisfy the demand for higher-yielding, non-junk paper, all of which traces its roots to d) Greenspan’s ultra low interest rates.
Yes, bad lending standards, no money down, lack of income verification or debt servicing ability were key culprits. But to claim that it was more Prime than sub-prime is belied by the history of foreclosures. And, it ignores all the other moving parts to the equation.
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Those things that are "free" or you really have nothing on the table if they go away...why worry about it?
Part of the failure of socialism is a LACK of ownership by anyone in anything. High taxation takes your salary. Government minders tell you what to do so learning what to do is optional...and with free medical care, any mistakes you make in that area will (maybe) get fixed by the state at no cost to you (except for pain and suffering).
Government takes care and owns everything. People atrophy, mentally, physically and often morally. There is little stake, postive or negative in exerting yourself.
No wonder the Russians had such an alcohol problem.
And of course good old Barney Frank wants Fannie/Freddie to lend at 125% of market value....nobody can learn.
Duh-uh.
How do I get a gig like that? Let's see, I could generate nearly conclusive analyses that unemployment might increase somewhat if taxes are raised to 100% of gross income if someone wants to pay me a couple hundred thou.
It would be interesting to see how many of those defaulters could easily afford to keep paying those mortgage payments anyway. Bet there might be an inverse relationship between credit scores and walkaways too.
And the best part is that, after taking into account the tax deductions for mortgages, on a cash flow basis, it's still cheaper in most cases than renting to keep these homes whose value will eventually rise to meet the mortgage again. (That is, if you actually have taxable income to deduct the interest from in the first place.)
The left loves to blame the greedy capitalist roaders on Wall Street for this collapse, and there is certainly something to be said about that. But the potentially huge amounts of faux profits to be made from this bubble made everybody's eyes bug out, including many who should not have gotten loans. If only the Ponzi bubble had not burst...
It was Gramm, not Frank who led the children out of town.
It's one component, but loans with zero down payment can still be classified as "prime" loans if the other factors are good, e.g. the borrower has a high income and good credit.
This article is arguing that whether a mortgage included a down payment or not is the single best predictor of default, better than whether the loan overall was classified as "sub-prime" or "prime". It's therefore arguing that the focus on sub-prime loans is at least partly misguided.
Leftist pressure since the 1970's to spread the real estate wealth around was the genesis of this whole mess. I know you'd like to deflect it to this conservative, or that one, but no way we're going to let the left get away with revisionist history this time.
We're learning Alinsky now too, and we'll see how the left likes it when it's directed at them.
but I seem to recall a guy somewhere saying that we shouldn't be so quick to infer causation from "10% of Xs account for 20% of Ys"... now where was that...
http://tr.im/qOtw
"It isn't a matter of loving to criticize the capitalist roaders. It's what happened.
It was Gramm
, notand Frank who led the children out of town."Flows better that way.
However I think many (first) mortgages in all states are non-recourse. I'm pretty sure this applies to VA loans (which are 0% down) and wonder if by extension it also applies to other federally insured loans like HFA (low income loans which are 3% down IIRC). My understanding is that VA loans have a somewhat higher default rate than a prime 20% down but that HFA loans have a hugely higher default rate. Consider how many people who can't scrape together a down payment take out federally insured/subsidized loans. Given how large this number is I wonder if the nomimal state law on whether a loan is no-recourse or not really matters for the eventual default rate. Even if all federally subsidized loans became full recourse it might not matter given the very limited assets and income of people getting HFA loans.
The system could have withstood Frank's interference. It was Grammite refusal to interfere in a crazed market that did the deed.
So what we need then is a number showing what percentage of prime loans have 100% loan-to-value ratio. My guess is that that number is very small since the average LTV ratios for prime mortgages that I've seen are between 80-85%.
To go into statistician speak: It's pretty obvious that he ran a logistic regression on the data as a basis for the article. It would be nice if he would share some of this to show the strength of argument.
Logistic models are good at separating out the contributions of different contributors like, in this case, lack of down payment, borrower credit score, borrower LTV, income, etc. I realize this is a WSJ article and not a statistical paper, but it would be nice to basic see numbers like the log odds ratios and p values
In the mid 90s, the Boston Fed pressured banks to lower their underwriting standards to meet Community Reinvestment Act targets and HUD enacted regulations compelling Fannie and Freddie to buy up these CRS junk mortgages to make them 50% of their portfolios.
The subprime market started taking off in 1997 and peaked in the middle of 2006.
Home prices inflated over the same period of time due to the added artificial demand.
Then, the party came to an end as foreclosures doubled in the Summer of 2006.
As the foreclosed houses hit the market, home prices paused for a few months and then took a swan dive.
The 2006 legal foreclosures were the culmination of months long legal processes. The defaults that led to the 2006 foreclosures must have started in 2005 when home prices were still growing and the economy was booming. Thus, it is unlikely that folks with jobs and good credit with prime mortgages would have been defaulting in 2005.
I suspect instead that the CRS junk mortgages started defaulting in 2005, bursting the housing bubble. When home prices started diving back down to their real market values, the folks who obtained mortgages of any type towards the end of the bubble would have found themselves upside down owing more than the homes were worth. Many of them defaulted, keeping up the cycle of home price collapse, upside down mortgage default, and more default driven home price collapse. By 2008, the recession probably started contributing to the defaults.
Millions of Americans are now encouraged to trade in their gas guzzling air polluting clunkers and get $3500-4500 in trade in value for a car which on the open market might bring $500 on a good day.
How many will jump at the chance to "own" a new car, and ignore the fact that the new car comes with a new car payment?
We WILL read the stories of how many auto loans coming out of this fiasco in the making went into default in the first few months, and how many new owners failed to make even the first payment. Sound familiar?
Just like the home builders, the auto makers will jump at the chance to put the unqualified into new cars. With the government's program, everyone will have made a decent down payment. How? Because the lenders will be encouraged .. if not forced .. to count the difference between the clunkers real value and the amount of the government's trade in mandate as a down payment.
The underlying problem was allowing investment banks and savings banks to become the same bank. Edward Herman has been warning about this since the '70s.
The theory behind Glass-Steagall was that there are two kinds of institutions: safe banks and risk banks. By junking G-S and allowing new institutions to grow up outside its reach, we ended up with only one kind of bank, the risk bank.
(disclosure: my current home was bought on a 97% LTV mortgage)
Nick
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